• Biblical Illness: Jesusanswers no charges at his hearing before Pilate.  (Matthew 27:11-14)  Vs  Jesus answers all charges at his hearing before Pilate.  (John 18:33-37)


  • Biblical Illness: Who bore the cross?  They compelled Simon to bear the cross of Jesus.  (Matthew 27:32), (Luke 23:26) & (Mark 15:21)  Vs  Jesus was bearing the cross himself.  (John 19:17)

Excuse; Bible proponents pursue to rationalize this disparity by proposing Jesus collapsed after the flogging and interrogation, at which point Simon persistent to carry the cross.  The problem with this assumed scenario is more questions than answers arise.

Rebuttal: First, if Jesus did indeed fall, and did not carry the cross, why didn’t any of the disciples document the “fall of Jesus”?  Second, if John did indeed delete the detail of Jesus being too decrepit, in order to demonstrate divinity; doubt develops regarding what other erasures have taken place discrediting the deity of Jesus?  While on the other hand, it is only in the testimony of John do we find derogatory statements suggesting Jesus is divine.  Third, less minor details are mentioned in the Gospel of John, i.e. (the exact hour Jesus was placed on the cross John 19:14), etc…  How then could the occurrence of a fellow disciple (Simon), participating in the crucifixion of Jesus be disregarded?

We realize the suggestion that the disciple John “left out” this occurrence is unacceptable, casting an even larger shadow of distrust on John’s Biblical narration.


  • Biblical Illness: In (Mark 15: 32) we are told that Jesus was put on a “cross” to be crucified:

“Let Christ the King of Israel descend now from the cross, that we may see and believe.  And they that were crucified with him reviled him.”

The word used here for “cross” in the Greek edition is “stauros”, yet in (1 Peter 2:24) we are told that Jesus was crucified on the “tree”:

“Who his own self bare our sins in his own body on the tree, that we, being dead to sins, should live unto righteousness: by whose stripes ye were healed.”

The word in this verse for “tree” in the Greek edition is “xulon”

Excuse; Bible proponents pursue to rationalize this disparity by proposing a mistranslation from the Greek text, but as we witnessed, even the verses in Greek use differing words to describe the wooden object allegedly used to defeat Jesus.  Yes, both a tree and a cross can be equally used as a stake, stick, staff, for all words are related in the lexicon meaning of the two, yet this relationship does not excuse the fact that two different words were used.  A tree and a cross can also have completely opposite dictionary meanings.  Hence, showing an equal degree of difference in the meanings.

Rebuttal:  First, suggesting a mistranslation of the Bible from Greek is unacceptable because Christians claim the Bible is divine and that the Bible is the exact word of God in every language.  Second, both the words used in Greek are themselves divergent and their meanings are not identical.  Third, such an explanation tries to bridge elements from their primal to their completed state, which is a long process absent between the passages.  For example “he was killed with a rock” or “he was killed with a sculpture”, two contradictory weapons, depicting unreliable witnesses.